- 20 Jun 08, 05:43 PM
Here's a reminder of question number 9, followed by Keith Hackett's answer:
Question number 9
Spain are playing in a quarter-final at Euro 2008 when one of the opposition players is substituted. The player is not pleased. He walks to the touchline and swaps places with a teammate, who is substituting him. Then, out of frustration, he throws his shirt to the ground, walks over and punches the fourth official.
He is presumably sent to the stands, or to the dressing room. But the question is, will his team be reduced to 10 players or have they got away with it, because the substitution had been completed by that point? And what would be his punishment?
Keith Hackett's answer
The question states that the substitution has taken place. Therefore we are considering the player who has come off and hit the fourth official is now no longer an active member of the team.
He is guilty of a violent conduct offence and will be dismissed to the stand and reported to the authorities. Attacking an official is a serious offence and the player's days of taking part in any football matches in the future are numbered.
The player is likely to face a life ban. Many years ago I was refereeing a local junior cup semi-final and a player who had left the field assaulted a spectator, which I reported to the County FA. His playing days were ended when he was given a sine die ban.
In this case the player that has been substituted on will be able to remain on the field and the team will play on with 11 men. The referee in these circumstances will NOT reduce the team to 10 men.
However, I feel there is an important point to make regarding substitutions.
Say the player coming on had not yet entered the field of play - i.e. if he was still getting his studs checked by the fourth official or receiving instructions from his manager when the violent conduct offence took place - then the substitution would not be complete.
The team would then have to continue with 10 men.
Thanks to RichBarber for this question.
Keep sending us in your suggestions and BBC Sport will choose some to be turned into You Are The Ref scenarios. We reserve the right to modify any we select.
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I have a suggestion -
Suppose that Holland are playing Spain in the semi-final, and Holland have a corner. The corner is swung in, and a goalmouth scramble follows in which Van Nistelrooy's foot is accidentally trodden on, and his boot almost comes off his foot. When the ball falls in front of him, he kicks his foot out and his boot flies off, hits the ball and knocks it into the goal.
Is it a goal? If not, do you caution him?
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You have to answer MattFPi's question - best i've seen :)
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Here's a suggestion-
It's the last minute of the Semi Final between, say, Turkey/Croatia against Germany. It's the last minute and Turkey/Croatia are a goal down so all the players make a giant mob with the ball somewhere in the middle and run the length of the pitch, with defenders unable to tackle them. They then round the goalkeeper and put the ball in the net but it cannot be determined which player scored the goal. If the ball moved forward at any stage to a player at the front of the pack then they would have been offside.
Do you give them the benefit of the doubt and award the goal, rule it out for offside or book them all for unsporting behaviour?
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A player has rounded the keeper outside his area and is jogging towards the open goal but a man eating lion is chasing him down. Does the referee stop the game due to the health risk?
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I think post no3 (Luke_NI) has been watching those burger king ads a bit too keenly
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In Vienna the Euro 2008 final between Spain and Germany has gone to a penalty shoot-out. David Villa comes forward to take a decisive penalty. If he fails to score, the cup is Germany's. He runs up and slots his penalty to the right of the goal. Lehman guesses the wrong way and is full committed to diving that way. Just as the ball is about to roll over the line, a fan who has jumped over the barriers, dives onto the pitch and stops the ball going in. Is it a goal or not???
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It's the quarter-final between Spain and Italy.
David Villa recieves the ball and whilst he juggles the ball, he calls a helicopter to take him off the ground. Once on, he rests the ball on the floor before the helicopter releases him to bang the ball into the net in mid-air. It turns out Iker Casillas is 'driving' the helicopter but has no licence! What action do you take?
A) Book David Villa for unsporting behaviour and arrest Casillas for a LONG time?
B) Award the goal
C) Call an aeroplane to take you and flatten Villa and Casillas
D) Ask your linesman or Keith Hackett!
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Dying moments of the semi-final. It has been raining hard (it is Switzerland after all) and the pitch has been re-laid.
Last minute penalty.
The keeper makes a decision and plunges acrobatically to his left.
The penalty taker loses his footing as he kicks the ball and it trickles straight down the middle towards the goal.
But at the beginning of the goalkeeper's glorious dive his boot has thrown up a large wet soggy divot that splodges down in the middle of the goal line and smacks the ball as it approaches.
He recovers and dives on the ball before it crosses the line.
What happens ref?
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Spain have a corner against Italy. It is an outswinger and Gianluigi Buffon stays on his line in a congested goal area. Fernando Torres flicks the ball on from the edge of the six yard box straight into the hands of Buffon, who has taken a step back to ensure he catches the ball comfortably. His feet are behind the goal line but his hands, and the ball, are clearly in front of the goal line. At the same time Carles Puyol makes a genuine effort to meet Torres' flick on with a diving header. Instinctively Buffon, with the ball safely in his hands, pulls the ball away from the flying Puyol towards his chest, causing the ball to cross the line while in his possession.
What should the referee do? Should a goal be awarded as the ball has crossed the line, albeit while Buffon was protecting himself, or should Puyol be penalised despite making a genuine effort to head the ball?
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Can a team concede a game either before or during the match? for example,
MUFC are topping the league by three points with a goal difference of +27. Arsenal are three points behind with a GD of +25. Both with one game to play.
Arsenal win their remaining game 1-0 bringing them level on points but behind on GD.
Could MUFC concede the game but be assured of the premiership due to their superior GD?
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Number 10 - this cannot happen. The final games of the season must happen concurrently, so in your example, Man Utd would not have the opportunity to concede their final game.
Incidentally, I think that conceding a game by not playing loses you three points anyway - that's what happened to Middlesbrough a few seasons back when they did not fulfil their fixture against Blackburn because they claimed not to have enough fit players to do so.
Number 3 - this was answered in an earlier blog and the result would be no goal and every player involved in the unsporting behaviour should be booked.
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MattFPi: I'm confused as to why there is a question. Why shouldn't the goal be awarded? Maybe I'm mistaken, but I don't seem to recall a rule against your shoe coming off on accident and knocking the ball in...
Luke: you call the goal back for offside if nothing else. Even if the players in the offside position didn't touch the ball, they certaintly gained an advantage from being in that position and interfered with play, which is grounds for calling offside. You don't have to actually touch the ball. But personally I think they all ought to be booked for unsporting behaviour.
Crouch: I'd let him play on. Is blowing the whistle somehow going to stop the man-eating lion in its tracks? The danger exists whether the ball is in play or not. Should the player stop his advance and run away screaming, or if the lion interfered with a defender getting back into position, then I'd whistle it dead.
Charlton: I doubt that situation could ever possibly occur... if the ball was rolling slowly enough for someone in the stands to come down and stop it, how could the goalie not scramble back and stop it?
Gethin: Choice A. =)
Deft: Bad luck for the taker. The goalie saves it. Pitch conditions are part of the game.
Gilsa: Very tough scenario. Personally I'd say award the goal. If Puyol had actually hit it out of Buffon's hands, then disallow it, but if Buffon moved it of his own volition then it should be allowed. Although practically I don't think you'd find a linesman with the stones to say it had definately crossed the line, and its doubtful a center ref would be in a position to see if it had.
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I have a scenario suggestion:
It is the final of Euro 2008. Germany v Spain.
Its the last minute of extra time and the score is 0-0.
The Germans are happy with this as they are confident they will win on penalties.
Suddenly, Iniesta breaks lose down the right wing with Torres breaking out in the middle.
Fritz starts to catch-up with Iniesta and so, he crosses the ball. Torres chips it above Lehmann and scores!
You, the ref, saw that when the ball was crossed it was in front of Torres which means he was onside, but the Linesman puts up his flag.
Both teams crowd around you for the final decision, what do you do - go with what you saw or with the decision of the linesman?
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So you gave a life ban for someone assualting a spectator.
Why in that case didn't Cantona get a life ban for karate kicking a fan?
Or does this 'life ban' only apply to the lower leagues where the players are not famous and there won't be as much of a fuss?
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Here's a suggestion.
In the Spain vs Italy game, Torres escapes down the left flank in a counterattack and heads straight towards goal. The Italian defenders madly rush back to close him out; however, Torres continues running and enters the the penalty area with a very narrow angle towards the goal, about half a meter away from the endline. Buffon, realizing that no defender has made it back to intercept Torres, rushes out of goal to block the shot. Torres wisely touches the ball around Buffon's right side and tries to run around his left. However, in order to avoid Buffon, he has to step out of the field, beyond the endline. Buffon, realizing that, if Torres makes it around him he will score, steps beyond the endline and tackles Torres down.
While clearly a foul, is this a penalty? Note that the foul took place beyond the endline, outside of the pitch. If not, where will the free kick take place? Will Buffon be red carded for committing a foul as the last man?
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Foolman I'd say that it depends on how confident you are with what you saw. The sole purpose of the linesman (or ASSISTANT) is to help the center referee. The referee is the final decision maker. If you as the center referee are confident that it was onside, you allowed the goal to stand.
Oliverio has a very interesting scenario...
Off hand I don't recall any place in the laws that deals with this scenario specifically (though I could be wrong), so I would guess that Law 8 applies. I'd say that play should be stopped (provided another Spanish player couldn't get there first and put it in the empty net) and restarted with a drop ball where the ball was when Buffon tackled the guy. Buffon is most certainly shown the red card.
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A scenario:
Russia are playing the Netherlands, leading 1-0, when the Dutch are awarded a freekick. Malafeev is booked for the challenge The Russians object, but the referee waves the protests away and allows the Dutch to take the freekick. The Russian defence, however, is still angry, fails to deal with the situation, and Akinfeev, the Russian goalkeeper, charges out in desperation. He ends up getting sent off for a professional foul. Russia, having already used all their substitutions, have no choice but to throw Malafeev in goal.
Time ticks by, and as the game moves into its final moments, Pavluchenko restores Russia's lead. The Netherlands charge forward, but Malafeev collects the ball, and refuses to let go. The referee accordingly books him for timewasting.
The referee invites Malafeev to turn round, in order to check his name and number. However, Malafeev is, of course, wearing Akinfeev's shirt, and, in the heat of the moment, the referee's knowledge of both the Russian players and the Russian language fails him. Malafeev, realising the confusion, gives the referee the name and number of another player.
The referee is confident that he's previously booked the player, but his book makes no mention of it. Perhaps he was mistaken? After all, the player in front of him now looks a tad different, wearing the keeper's top, and he's not entirely familiar with the Russian side.
Nonetheless, the referee is certain that the player before him is Malafeev, the player who was booked earlier in the game. What does he do?
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to number 13 award the goal youm know it was onside and therfore legall and you have the power to overrule the linesman
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oliveiro77 (#15):
If Torres deliberately steps out of play to gain an advantage, he is no longer considered to be in play and ought to be booked. But as he is out of play, there can be no penalty.
As for Buffon, it comes down entirely to the referee's discretion as to the severity of the challenge. The way you describe it, a red card would probably be in order due to the cynical nature of the challenge, but it's up to the referee.
One futher point: you say Torres rolled the ball one way past Buffon whilst he went the other. The ball is thus presumably loose in the area. If David Villa picks it up and scores, should play have been stopped at the time of Buffon's indiscretion, or does the goal stand? I would suggest the latter, but I'm not sure.
What if both Villa and Materazzi go for the loose ball, and a foul is committed? Does it take precedence over the Buffon foul? Is it relevant whether the defender or the attacker committed the foul?
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Hm. Son has a darn good question. Ideally, the referee should already know who is in goal, having made a note of it after he sent Akinfeev off, since no player can trade places with the goalie without the referee's permission. But if the referee is sure that he's the same man, time to send him off. (though i'm just spitballing here.)
On another note:
"If a player loses his footwear accidentally and immediately plays the
ball and/or scores a goal, there is no infringement and the goal is
awarded because he lost his footwear by accident."
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da-gilsta (#9):
Interesting idea. But might I remind you of the 1958 FA Cup final, between Bolton and Man U?
Midway through the second half, Nat Lofthouse, the Bolton striker, and Harry Gregg, the Man U keeper, both go for the same cross. Gregg catches the ball just before Lofthouse can get there, but the latter's momentum carries him forward. He collides with Gregg, shoulder first, and the two dropped over the line. A goal is given (although it remains controversial to this day).
Much the same happened between Andy Gray and Steve Sherwood in the 1984 final.
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term3186 (#20):
I'd be inclined to agree, although I'm really not at all sure. If Graham Poll can book the same player three times, who knows what can happen?
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But does Torrest 'deliberately' step out of play or is he so close to the end line and running so fast that dodging Buffon + his momentum takes him out of play? The referee should give advantage as long as the ball is free and loose and Spain still has a chance to score. However if a defender clears it away, a drop ball should be issued, or if a goal is scored, it should stand, with Buffon being sent off either way.
As for two players challenging for the ball in the center:
If the defender commits a PK-worthy foul, it should take precedence over Buffon's and a PK should be awarded, as advantage was given, and Buffon should still be sent off.
If the attacker commits a foul, I'm not so sure what happens... Buffon is still sent off, but I'm not sure if you stop play for a drop ball or award a free kick to the Italians.
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#21:
I don't see how a goal could possibly be given for that. I'm very surprised. Why not just pick up the opposing team's goalie while he has the ball and carry him back into his own net? A blown call imho.
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what about this one-
holland are playing italy in the semi final. its a corner to holland. The corner is swung in, and after a goalmouth scramble the ball comes to Robben on the edge of the box. he fires a shot in, which is quite obviously going wide. however, the ball deflects off an italian player, the ball then hitting another italian player on the arm, but is not delibrate. the ball then travels into the net.
goal, or no goal?
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Just to have it straight (though I don't think it matters) the ball hits one Italian, then hits another Italian in the arm and proceeds to go in the goal?
Its a goal as near as I can figure it.
A) Even if it was a foul (which it isn't) there is certainly an advantage seeing as how the ball goes in the back of the net. Play on!
B) Its not a foul, put the whistle in your pocket. In this scenario even if the ball was going into the goal, and it hits the Italian in the arm and is deflected out, it STILL isn't a foul.
The rules are VERY clear that the ball must be DELIBERATELY HANDLED for a foul to be given. No one appreciates the subtle (but hugely important) difference between the term 'hand ball' (a stupid term) and 'handLED ball'.
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An attacking player has run circles around the defence, rounded the keeper (who for the sake of this situation is out of his penalty area) and is slowly jogging towards the goal. A supporter runs onto the pitch, but instead of trying to kick the ball away he rugby tackles the attacker. The ball meanwhile rolls into the goal, as the supporter never touches it.
Goal, indirect freekick or drop ball?
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This comment was removed because the moderators found it broke the House Rules.
A situation -
It's Germany/Turkey in the semi-final of Euro 2008. Approaching half time two Turkish forwards break free followed closely by a German defender. The first striker (as the last man) is approaching a one on one with the goalkeeper, but before he has chance to shoot he is deliberately taken down by the German defender - A definate red card offence. However in the confusion the ball rolls past the goalkeeper to the second forward who has an open goal. The split second decision you make is to let the Turkish forward score and then send off the German defender. The Turkish forward promptly smashes the ball against the bar and it bounces to the German defender (who should have been sent off) who is hit with leg breaker of a challenge by another Turkish player.
What action do you take?
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Gooders1987(29) surely you send them all off =)
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Just to shake things up abit to the above post (#29), The German defender is injured quite badly and is stretchered off. Do you allow the substitution? and do you send off the Turkish player?
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Suppose a player falls over in the box and their boot comes off. The ball then bounces in front of the player that is down. this player reacts by picking up the boot and reaching his arm out to score with his boot. Does the goal count seeing as there is no direct contact with the arm?
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#24:
The reason you can't pick the goalkeeper up and carry him into the net is because picking an opposition player up is a foul. However, shoulder barges ARE permissible, and thus barging the keeper over the line does constitute a goal.
#25 :
Whether or not it's a handball is down to the referee's discretion - who touched the ball previously is irrelevant.
#27:
Goal. As long as the interfering spectator isn't preventing the match from continuing, the game would carry on, and the goal would stand - consider Dida being tickled when Celtic scored the winner against Milan last Autumn.
However, if the supporter had tackled the goalkeeper, it becomes a more complicated question, and I really don't know the answer. I would imagine a drop ball would result, but I couldn't say for sure.
#29:
Cracking question. I'd have to say that, presuming no player looks to be suffering a particularly severe or life-threatening injury, the referee send off both players who committed a foul. Once a Turkish player had fouled a German opponent, the advantage given to Turkey would end.
#31:
If the player was due to be sent off, the referee is entitled to produce a card whilst the player is being put on to the stretcher (sounds odd, but it does happen - remember Gazza in 1991?). There would therefore be no substitute. And the Turkish player would still be sent off.
#32:
I'm not sure I really needed to post an answer to ALL of these...
Blimey. As far as I know, the goal would not count, but not because of handball. It would be disallowed because a player is not allowed to hold any instrument in order to move the ball.
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Further to #32:
It's, let's say, Spain v Italy. Torres goes down in the box, landing headfirst with his legs following behind.
The ball is still bouncing around the box. As it loops over the collapsing Torres, Villa, thinking quickly, grabs the leg of his upended teammate and uses it to club the ball into the net.
Is it a goal?
It can't be a foul, as Villa is manhandling his teammate. But surely it can't be considered in the same light as Villa using his own boot to slap the ball past the keeper, as Torres is entitled to kick the ball whether he's upright or not.
On the other hand, I can't see how this would be acceptable. Does it fall under the same rule that prevents the lifting of teammates, like at a rugby lineout?
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#34
Presumably there is a rule requiring players to move the ball under their own steam. But that raises another interesting scenario. Corner kick, Villa dives forward, quite obviously not in the direction of the ball, but in the direction of the goal, and knocks (and already airborne) Torres upwards to a hight advantage over the defender, allowing for a header goal. Allowed? he was not specifically lifting his player.
What about jumping off a teammates back?
Maybe i'm just getting to technical.
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Van Persie is racing down the left wing close to the line when he is heavily tackled exactly on the halfway line. He rolls off the field and reveives treatment but it soon becomes clear that he can't continue.
While this is happening, the ref places the ball at the point where the foul took place - at the junction of the halfway line and the byeline.
The Nederlanders indicate that Robben will come on as sub and all the preliminaries take place. The ref signals Robben to com on and for the game to restart.
Robben notices that the Russian goalkeeper isn't paying attention and, without placing a foot on the pitch runs up and whacks the free kick into the net.
Goal or not? Has he entered the field of ploy by his kicking foot crossing the line?
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It's the Euro 2008 Semi Final between Germany and Turkey, 5 minutes to play and the scores are still level.
Turkey break forward and put a deep cross into the box, the Turkish forward jumps with Lehmann and heads the ball home.
The Turkish players all run to the corner flag to celebrate, but there was a foul on the keeper and you blew for a free kick.
The Turkish players have not heard this and 9 of their players are still celebrating when the Germand take a quick free kick and break down the other end and score.
The place is in pandemonium, the Turks are fuming.
What is your ruling?
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#37.
A similar thing happened this season in a match between Real Madrid and Getafe. In this instance, Robben thought he had put Real 1-0 up, and as he and several team-mates celebrated, the referee had seen a foul (might have been offside - can't quite remember). Getafe then quickly took the free-kick, and broke at Real Madrid and actually scored to make it 1-0.
Personally, I would allow them to take a quick free-kick as long as one player had asked to do so.
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RE -
However, shoulder barges ARE permissible, and thus barging the keeper over the line does constitute a goal.
Sonofthedesert - have you watched a game in the last 40 years?
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Lehmann commits a bookable offence (let's say time-wasting with a goal kick after already being warned) and the ref blows and starts to jog over to him, producing a yellow card from his pocket as he does so. Lehmann's body language shows he has clearly seen the card coming out, as have the crowd and nearby players.
However, before the ref gets to Lehmann, the official suffers severe cramp and drops to the ground. After a lengthy delay, the ref has to be replaced. The new ref, forgetting that the ref was in the middle of booking Lehmann, restarts the game with the goal kick.
Later in the game, Lehmann commits the same offence again and the new ref intends to book him, at which point he remembers that the previous ref had already started to book the keeper once before. Can he complete the formalities of the first booking then issue a second yellow?
I know there was a similar question about the same player committing two yellow card fouls in one move, and Keith Hackett's answer was just one yellow as a player can only be shown a second yellow if he knew he was already on one. In this example, Lehmann did know his previous misdemeanour was cautionable but the admin of it simply wasn't completed at the time.
Whatchya gonna do?!
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imagine the scenario, a team takes kick off and everyone makes a sort of ring around the player with the ball, a sort of protective shell and the team runs all the way up the pitch and scores (they probably wouldnt get that far because there would some sort of foul on the way to goal) but lets say they scored. is it legal or would the ref stop play?
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Ok, here's the scenario.
We're in the season of 08/09 and Ronaldo is still at Man U, Fergie has been keeping him out of the squad as the rift has deepened.
After 3 weeks of not playing Ronaldo agrees that given the chance he will play for the team and try his best to perform.
So Ronaldo is picked for the team in the match against West Ham, on receiving the ball he turns around and starts dribbling towards his own goal. When his team realise what is happening they try to stop him. Ronaldo tricks Wes Brown and is through on goal, when Rio Ferdinand makes a brutal last ditch tackle inside the penalty area from behind, leaving Ronaldo injured in the box.
The Ref stops play to deal with the injury.
Can Rio Ferdinand receive any kind of punishment for the dangerous tackle? How is play restarted? Can Ronaldo be punished for unsporting behaviour?
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It's the Spain v Italy Quarter Final of Euro 2008. After trailing 1-0 for most of the match the Italians score a late equaliser as one of their midfielders heads in a corner. The goalscorer (already booked once in the match) is jumped on by all his teammates and pulled to the ground. In the jubilant celebrations it appears that one of the players has pulled the scorers shirt off. Having already been booked, would Italy now have to play extra time with 10 men?
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Regarding Post No 10. This has nothing to do with the laws of the game, but will be covered by the comeptitions own rules. As far as I know in this situation Man Utd could not forfiet the game but would as I understand the premisership rules, lose points ( minimum 1) if they did not play, thus handing the title to Arsenal.
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It's the semi-final between Germany and Turkey. With time runing out, Germany are a goal down, and Joachim Low is furious. He tells his assisstant,on the mobile phone to call Ballack to the touchline, and hands him instructions via the mobile. The ref is unaware of Ballack leaving the field, but is told so by the 4th official. But at that point of time, the Turks are attacking and have a chance to score. Does the ref blow the whistle (against Ballack), or does he let play continue ? Also, does Ballack escape unpunished ?
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#36:
I'm not at all certain, but I would imagine that the goal would stand. After all, any player taking a corner kick leaves the field in order to do so, even though the ball remains on the field, and without the express permission of the referee.
#37:
Goal. No question. In the 1998 quarter-final between England and Argentina, Sol Campbell had a goal disallowed, and Argentina came close to scoring whilst the England players were still celebrating. The onus is on the players to pay attention until the referee says otherwise - what they call 'playing to the whistle'.
#39:
Ha! Yes, I know, keepers today are usually protected from the shoulder-barge rule. But there's nothing in the laws that say they should be.
#40:
As far as I'm aware, the key point in the booking process is writing down the player's details in the book. If the referee has not done this, the replacement could end up booking the wrong player by accident. Or even booking the same player three times. Of course, no referee would ever do that...
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#42:
A player can be punished for violent conduct against anyone, whichever side he may be on. Remember David Batty getting sent off, whilst playing for Blackburn, after beating up Graeme Le Saux?
As for Ronaldo, I don't see how the referee would have any power to punish a player simply for making things harder for his own side. Heaven knows, Djimi Traore used to make things harder for Liverpool in every game.
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the goalie has picked up the ball he bounces it and catches it does the ref blow for a free kick .as the rules say when he releases the ball its back in play and he cannot pick it up again.or does he do what every ref does and ignores this rule
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Here's a scenario:
It's a crucial game in a major tournament. It's also very aggressive, and you've booked a number of players.
After an incident late in the match, you decide to book another player. You think he may have already been booked, but it's hard to be sure.
Do you:
a) check the player's details in your book and react accordingly?
b) trust your instincts and send him off?
c) avoid trouble by pretending nothing's happened?
d) show him a second yellow card, but allow him to stay on the pitch, and then give him a third booking for a very minor offence a few minutes later, convincing yourself that you've done the right thing, and you'll be well on the way to getting a job with the BBC when you retire.
It's a tough choice. Really it is.
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#48:
The keeper's allowed to bounce the ball up to six times, provided he does not deliberately touch it with his foot.
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Oliveiro question 15
Red card Buffon, penalty to Spain.
If a player touches the ball round an opponent and tries to run around him on the outside, he is still in play.....
Not the difference btw football and basketball. A keeper can stand behind the line and still hold the ball in play to protect against a goal or corner kick.
So, since Buffon made no attempt to play the ball, and was the last player, it,s a red card.
Since the foul play took place within the penalty aea, Penalty kick awarded.
No debate on this one
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Here's one that I've often wondered about - would like to hear people's opinion on this.
Its a knockout match. Say the quarter final - Holland v Russia. Holland have been leading 1-0 since early on in the game and are under pressure in the closing stages. We are entering injury time late in the match, with Holland still holding on to their slender lead.
With the game seemingly slipping away from Russia, Arshavin suddenly finds himself one on one with Ooijer. Ooijer accidentally slip over leaving Arshavin in the clear. His shot beats Van der Sar but not the post. The ball bounces back of the foot of the post, before rolling into the arms of the grateful Van der Sar. Russia's last chance looks to have gone begging.
Ooijer looks to the heavens in relief before gratefully ruffling the head of Van der Sar and then gives the ball a gentle pat as well for good measure.
Russia immediately claim a penalty for handball - Ooijer's hand made contact with the ball and this could be classed as a deliberate 'hand to ball' motion.
Van der Sar has the ball held firmly in both hands, against his chest, so the ball did not move one centimetre. The 'handball' did not deny Russia an advantage nor give one to the Dutch. Should a penalty be awarded?
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Two of my suggestions:
1) The Euros have entered the semi final stage. The scores are tied and we enter extra time. Both teams have used all three substitutes. One player has been playing particularly poorly and decides to take matters literally into his own hands. He walks up to the oppositions two most influential players, and punches them in the face, knocking them out. Neither can play on. You rush over, break up any fights and send the player off. However, this still leaves the disgraced player's team a man up. Can any other action be taken?
2) The Euros have entered the semi final stage. Approaching the end, one team are trailing by a goal and are attempting to get back into the game. The leading team has the ball in the corner with their attacker, when all of a sudden the attacker beats the oppostition's defender and runs into the penalty area. However, their touch is too heavy and the ball is running out of play. Another of the trailing team's defenders is in a rush to continue play, and picks the ball up to throw back to his keeper. However, the ball had clearly not entirely gone out of play. Do you give a penalty or is this action not deemed "intentional"?
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Hi, this scenario came into my mind just after I had watched the results of the remarkable game between Turkey and Croatia.
As we all know, Turkey and Germany meet in the semi-finals. Germany are leading by a 1-0 goal advantage until the very last minute of the match thanks to shrewd tactical changes made by the coach Joachim Löw who has used up all of his three substitutions in executing those tactics.
Now as the last minute fades away, Turkey get possession of the ball and go into attack with Nihat dribbling just outside the penalty spot seeking to find an opening. Lo and behold, in response to the threat of Nihat, Jens Lehmann decides to come out of his penalty box and recklessly tackles Nihat allowing Turkey a free-kick. Michael Ballack justifiably angry at this, comes screaming at Lehmann which plainly to the viewer seems to make Lehmann blush.
So this is where things gets exciting, Nihat upon taking the freekick places it straight at Lehmann's arms who instead of playing the ball away, places it at his feet and quite nonchalantly shoots it towards the back of the net. Now my question or questions is this:
1. Will this be a goal? And if it is, does the opposing captain have the power to choose to disqualify the goal in the spirit of fairness?
2. As Germany has already made its three substitutions, will they be allowed to change or even take Lehmann off the pitch and reduce themselves to 10 men, come extra-time?
3. Can the goalkeeper be officially reprimanded?
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# 9
Clear goal. If however Puyol so much as touches Buffon, then free kick Italy
# 19
If Villa scores, no foul.
If Matterazzi gets involved, advantage over. Blow for foul, RED CARD buffon and PENALTY
Advantage for foul play or offside is FOR the attacking team. Remember Liverpool Vs Cheklsea CL semi 2005??If no goal allowed, then RED CSRD Cech and PENALTY as ref has long since said.
#25
Goal given!
#27
Goal given!
#29, 30, 31
If second Turkish player onside, play advantage
If goal scored, book German for foul play YELLOW CARD as the tackle was not goakl saving does not deserve RED unless was in itself dangerous and malicous
If ball comes off the bar, goal scoring chance was not denied so YELLOW CARD German for foull plat as above and RED CARD Turk for DELIBERATE malicious and dangerous foul play. Recommence free kick Germany
#32
YELLOW CARD for unsporting behaviour. Recommence free kick
#36
Goal given! Ref allowed him on so he's part of play
#37
Goal Germany.
#40
Too late Mr Graham Poll. YELLOW CARD given.
On a different note, it is the responsibility of the ref to hand over ALL relevant info to his replacer, and, it is the duty of the 4th official -now ref- to pay attention to play.
#43
RED CARD Rio if foul dangerous or malicious as it's clearly deliberate.
Ron plays on.
Recommence with a drop-ball
#45
Play advantage to Turkey.
YELLOW CARD Ballack at next break of play for unsporting behaviour
Report Low for breaching terms of his touch line ban.
Sorry for the long answer, thought you'd appreciate.
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Ballack is about to score, when a mysterious fan who you can't tell what team he is supporting, runs onto the pitch, tackles Ballack, and the fan scores himself, for Germany.
Ballack had an open goal, the goalkeeper was wondering off somewhere else, all Ballack needed to do was to tap it in. It is a certain goal. But the fan scores the goal instead.
Does the goal count? Is it taken back to the restart, or does the goal go down for Ballack or a 'mysterious fan'?
What do you do in this situation?
Now the ball is in the net, the fan is being chased by police, and there is all confusion.
Does the player have to score himself for the goal to be his? He was right in front of goal and just needed to tap it in, even a baby could. He had the whole goal in front of him, open.
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#52
No action necessary. Ball in keepers hands is dead unless keeper does something with it. Give Ooiler a stern look and play on.
#53
Scenario 1.
Tough Luck! RED CARD offending player and restart with free kick.
Scenario 2.
YELLOW CARD given and PENALTY
#54
Goal stands.
YELLOW CARD Lehman for unsporting behaviour and bringing the game to disrepute.......and......much like the Ronaldo scenario befoe, Germany are stuck with him unless he's WILLING to respond to request to play well or come off.
A second similar act leads to another YELLOW CARD.
#56
Game restarts with a drop-ball at the point the spectator touched he ball. NO GOAL!
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Sandbarry - post #48
The laws state that a keeper is deemed to be in posession of the ball if he is holding it or is tossing it or bouncing it.
The six seconds for which he is allowed to hold the ball include all of these in one single six-second period.
Sonofthedesert - post #50
I'm not sure where you got the 'allowed to bounce the ball up to six times' information because there is no such clause in the laws.
If you assume each bounce would take a second, then you have a point but the keeper could be an ex basketball player who likes to show off his prowess by bouncing the ball 15 times in 5 seconds before punting it down the field and there is nothing in the laws to prevent this.
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I have a scenario. it's Spain vs Italy and Torres rounds the keeper and has a clear goal in front of him when a opposition fan throws something on the pitch hitting Torres and Torres not being able to put the ball at the back of the net allowing Italy to clear the danger. What would the Ref do? Bearing in mind it was a certain goal.
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Ok here's one.
You are the President of UEFA. Before a major tournament you instruct referees to clamp down on certain behaviour such as shirt pulling and holding at corners and free kicks. When referee correctly awards a penalty kick for applying the laws as you wanted what do you do?
A) Come out publicly and support him
B) Allow one of the managers to publicly mock the referee and then allow the referee no further part in the tournament.
Come on Keith. You must have an opinion on this one.
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Say that Turkey are playing Germany and Kevin Kuranyi goes to control a long pass. Unfortunately for him, the ball goes just out of play for a throw-in, but by the time the referee/linesman stops play, Kuranyi is fouled by a Turkish player who is already on a booking. The foul would have constitued a second bookable offence and hence a sending off, what would therefore happen?
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Penalty shoot-out between Turkey and Spain in the final. Fernando Torres steps up to take the decisive penalty to win Euro 2008 for Spain. A he takes the penalty, an earthquake strikes and forces Volkan to fall over, but the ball stays on the spot as Torres strikes it in to the corner and it nestles into the back of the net.
Does the goal count?
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I have a suggestion
If a player is dismissed from the dugout without having been on the park what kind of ban would he receive if he hit a fellow team mate?
Scott Laidlaw
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Hm. Here's an interesting question. "Where Football Meets Rugby"...
A corner or free kick is taken. The ball is coming in too high for any player to get it with his head - except the goalkeeper, who can of course get to it with his hands.
But, an attacking player spots his team-mate jumping early, and lifts him a few inches higher like a rugby player in a lineout, so he can reach the ball before the keeper and head it into the net.
Goal, or no goal?
Would the answer be the same if *either* the original jumper *or* the person lifting him happened to collide shoulder to shoulder with a member of the opposition before touching the ball, not as an intentional foul but in the honest attempt to get the ball?
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It's Germany V Russia in the final of Euro 2008 - the last minute of stoppage time and the scores are 0-0.
Just before the Russians win a corner, they use their last substitution - their secret weapon... A 20 year old who was actually born in Northern Ukraine, but qualifies for the national team as his father was Russian.
As he comes on, the crowd jeer as he's wearing gloves on a very warm night.
He takes his place in the box, and as the corner comes over leaps in the air at the near post - the ball is about to sail over his head, when it flicks off one of his gloves and spills into the back of the net. The young lad is overjoyed and sprints off towards the crowd. You are in the process of putting your whistle to your lips to blow for hand ball, when he removes his gloves to expose not hands, but a second set of feet on the end of his arms.... what do you do?
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Just to save alot of repeated questions: THERE IS NO SUCH THING AS A "CERTAIN GOAL"!
If the ball bursts, is hit by a lump of mud, is hit by someones flying boot, is blocked by a fan or is vapourised by an alien and then DOESN'T cross the line then....NO GOAL!
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I wonder something about player's intention.
If an attacker somehow get into an opponent byline alone without his teammate around and with no angle to score, and want to try his luck by slam a shot into a defender and hope it bounce luckily to the net.
but his shot hit a defender's face and knock him down instantly and the ball somehow bounce back to the attacker.
then he quickly kick the ball (with a lot of power) to that knocked down defender and score like he want at first.
Is it foul? If it, how and when?
Thank you.
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Another "last minute" question, I'm afraid... In a desperate attempt to score, the opposition goalkeeper goes up the pitch for a corner. The defending goalkeeper catches the ball, runs to the edge of the area to try to kick it out, but finds opposition players in front of him, so he throws it out as far as he can. The ball ends up going into the goal at the other end. Is it a goal?
Obviously you can't score directly from a throw in, but in this situation the ball is already in play - so can a goalkeeper score by throwing it out and nobody else touching the ball?
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Here's a scenario for you...
In Vienna the Euro 2008 final between Spain and Germany has gone to a penalty shoot-out. David Villa comes forward to take a decisive penalty. If he fails to score, the cup is Germany's. He runs up and slots his penalty to the right of the goal. Lehman guesses the wrong way and is full committed to diving that way. Just as the ball is about to roll over the line, a fan who has jumped over the barriers, dives onto the pitch and stops the ball going in. Is it a goal or not???
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Van Nistlerooy strays into an offside position in the box as a free-kick is about to be played in. At the very moment the ball is struck, a defender reaches out and shoves him down.
You can't tell which technically came first - the offside or the foul. Which takes priority? Is it a penalty to Ruud or a free-kick to the opposition?
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We saw from the Russia team last night that they like to shoot from a distance and came close to scoring a few times.
What I want to know is; if you have a player who is capable of scoring from 30 yards out on a regular basis (with other players in front of him) and he gets tackled as he is about to shoot. Is this denying a goal scoring chance? How close does it have to be to the goal before deemed a goal scoring opportunity?
We have already seen Gomez miss for Germany from 2 yards where as Russia only missed by 2 yards from 44 yards out.
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It's the final, Italy 1 Germany 0. In desperation Metzelder pumps it forward but it is overhit and Chiellini is sheparding it out. However, Klose tries to get the ball, but Chiellini without playing the ball, stands between klose and the ball so Klose can't get it. This is surely obstruction but happens so often without punishment. What should be done?
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Spain have a chance on the break, with Torres. Only Materazzi is between him and goal. Materazzi runs towards Torres, but a Spain fan grabs hold of him and stops him from getting close to Torres, who goes on to score, with Materazzi occupied. What happens?
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The final has gone done down to pens. Materazzi can win it for Italy. As he runs up, Zinedine Zidane appears from nowhere and headbutts him. As Materazzi writhes in agony his head hits the ball causing it to complete a full revolution. What happens?
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The final has gone done down to pens. Materazzi can win it for Italy. As he runs up, Zinedine Zidane appears from nowhere and headbutts him. Materazzi legs fall off due to the headbutt, so he is unable to take a penalty. Do Italy miss out on the penalty or does the next kicker take it for him?
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The final has gone done down to pens. Materazzi can win it for Italy. As he runs up, someone in the crowd shoots the ball with a high calibre sniper rifle. The ball is burst. What happens, assuming the sniper shoots all UEFA certified replacements?
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It's the semi-final, David Silva crosses and the ball rolls along the top of the cross bar. The keeper assumes the ball has gone out and calls to the ball boy for a new ball, however the old ball is still in play. What happens it it drops to say, Villa who taps it in?
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It's the final, and Turkey are brutally kicking Spain out the game and Spain are responding. There is a mass brawl and 5 players on each side are sent off at the same time. Normally, the side who has 6 left, forfeits 3 0 but if it occurs to both sides what happens? Would it declared void, bringing shame on UEFA?
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#73. Materazzi insults a female relative of the supporter, and once again is a victim of physical assault in the form of a headbutt
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what happens if ballack ( or anyone else who is their team penalty taker) brought down in the box in the last minute of the final and a penalty is awarded but he needs treatment and has to leave the field of play??
Can he come back on and take the penalty?
or does he have to stay off the field until the ball is in play and another person take the kick.
as i see it at the moment this law if of no benefit to the team of which a foul has been committed .
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Ade Akinbiyi takes a long range shot which is screaming into the top corner of the net (an imaginary scenario to start!). Just as he lets fly the goalposts collapse making the goal much smaller so the ball consequently flies over the now much lower crossbar.
What's the outcome?
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Having spent some time reading this comment I would like to comment on the post that the goalkeeper can bounce the ball at least six times, as long as it does not touch his feet. When was this law brought in. The goal keeper can NOT release the ball when it is in his posestion to bounce the ball is a breach of the laws of the game, but as another post says they all get away with it. The problem with the laws is that Premier Referees do NOt use the existing laws they do what they are told by the Professional Game Board, when there can send a player off. Foul Language is NOT according to PGB a sending off offence. My fellow collegues at higher levels have made it harder for us at the lower level by accepting there thirty pieces of silver and a sponsored coat. There morals and ethics come cheap.
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I have a suggestion-
Suppose Germany are playing Spain in the final, Gattuso falls awkwardly after a clumsy tackle from Torsten frings. Play continues for a brief period until Ballack decides to kick the ball out of play, although referee did not prompt him to do so. To follow this act of sportsmanship, Pirlo gives possesion back to germany by kicking it towards Lehman, who unexpectedly slips and gets lobbed. The ball ends up in the back of the net, niether team team intented this, germany protests and Italy seem unwiling to accept the goal. Should the goal stand???
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I have a suggestion.
It is the semi finals between Germany and Turkey. After a brilliant 3-3 score and extra time causes no result both teams are destined for penalties.
After the Germans score all five of their penalties, inevitably, and Turkey score their first four. Kazim- Richards steps up to take turkey's fifth penalty.
He fires it down the middle but Lehmann sees what he is doing and catches it.
In a fit of euphoria Lehmann goes to kick the ball from his hands into the crowd but miskicks and powers it into the net.
Does it count as a goal and the shoot-out continues or does it count as a save?
Please someone answer, none of my mates can agree!
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I witnessed an unusual incident in a league match several seasons ago. I was sat in cognito, among the home fans although I was supporting the away team, and even those home fans around me, reckoned what we saw was wrong but the referee took no action.
The referee awarded a dubious penalty to the away team. Whilst he was surrounded and harangued by players from the home team, the home mascot, dressed to look like a giant chicken, moved from his seat in the stands and stood immediately behind the goal in question. When the away forward was eventually able to take the penalty, the mascot was doing star jumps immediately behind his keeper, to put the penalty kicker off. The penalty was saved, and the mascot started to return to his seat. The referee ordered the kick to be retaken, we thought at first, because of the mascot's actions, but the referee never spoke to the mascot, and the mascot returned to his position behind the goal, and did more star jumps. The second penalty was successfully taken. At no time did the referee speak to the mascot about his actions.
Was the referee at fault (and the mascot) ?
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83: Gattuso plays for italy not spain or germany
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83: same with Pirlo
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domthebee - post#80
What a cracking question.
My understanding (and this was recently discussed amongst a number of referees) is that he would NOT be allowed to take the penalty.
As you say, he would have to leave the field and could not re-enter until the ball was back in play (ie someone else had taken the penalty).
HOWEVER: If the referee has already given him permission to return 'as soon as the penalty is taken' then he is at liberty to rejoin at that point.
This is important if the referee, for whatever reason (encroachment, keeper off his line, etc), demands a retake, since Ballack would now legally be back on the field and in a position to take it.
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Tomthebook - post #82
You are correct that there is nothing in law to state the number of bounces that are allowed.
However, it IS clearly stated that the keeper is deemed to be in posession if he is tossing or bouncing the ball. As long as it is within the 6 seconds, the keeper may bounce the ball as many times as he likes without an offence being committed.
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at post #61
no sending off, we saw yesterday with the russian cb
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george_bests_beard - #84
My understanding would be that it is not a goal. If the save has been made, then the ball is dead--it wouldn't count any more than if the goalkeeper parries it and the striker scores the rebound.
penwortham_tim - #85
I think this is one of those situations where it's up to the referee's discretion. It seems like in the game you were watching, the retake was probably ordered for another infringement. However, as the referee is in charge of the field of play, including coaches, assistants, and I would guess also mascots, and in his opinion the mascot is distracting, he would be within his rights to order him/her/it to move, or even send him/her/it off.
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It's the last game of the 2008/9 Premier League season. Manchester United are playing at Hull, and are one point ahead of Chelsea who are playing at Sunderland.
Both teams are leading 1-0 at halftime.
Alex Ferguson uses his last substitution with ten minutes to go to introduce Cristiano Ronaldo who hasn't played since Ferguson refused to sell him to Real Madrid in the January transfer window. Ronaldo gets the ball, turns around, plays through his own team and scores an intentional own goal. You award the goal and then book Ronaldo for unsporting conduct.
There is a huge row, with other United players demanding you refuse the goal, with Hull players talking to their manager to work out what they should do.
While the argument is ongoing, Sunderland score against Chelsea and then the final whistle is blown in the other game. Ferguson then indicates to the fourth official that he wishes to withdraw Ronaldo from the field, preferring to play with ten players. Ronaldo refuses to leave.
Can the manager legitimately compel one of his players to stop playing when he does not have a substitute available?
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Here's a question:
Germany have a corner. The Turkish goalkeeper has a quick drink from the water bottle he keeps near his goal, while the corner taker is placing the ball. The ref blows his whistle earlier than the goalkeeper expects and the keeper has to quickly drop his water bottle to concentrate on the corner. The Turk's head it out and a shot is rifled in from the edge of the area. The keeper dives to save the shot but it gets a deflection, meaning he is diving the wrong way, and the ball ends up trickling towards the goal only to be stopped on the line by the goalkeeper's water bottle which is lying in the goal. The keeper then smothers the ball.
What would the referee do in this instance?
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I have a suggestion
Germany are defending a 1-0 lead against Spain in the Erou 2008 final and are attempting to waste time. All 10 outfield players make a circle surrounding the ball, making it impossible for a Spanish player to touch the ball without fouling a German player.
Time is running out and Spain's players and coaches are appealing to the Ref to do something, to add to this the crowd are starting to look dangerous. What is your course of action?
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#92 po8crg - Clearly the Ref cannot outrule the goal or book Ronaldo however managers can take any player off without swapping for a sub as is done when a player gets injured and the team is out of subs
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Turkey are leading Germany 1 - 0 in their Euro 2008 semi final with a couple of minutes to play. The Germans are awarded a free kick just inside the Turkish half and seem to want to get on with it.
However, before they can take it, a Turkish fan jumps onto the pitch. The fan then proceeds to dribble the ball away from the free kick taker and into the German half, using a couple of deft stepovers to evade tackles from the German centre halves. Obviously, as the ref, you stop the game. The fan however outruns security and the police who are chasing him around the pitch.
The pitch invader begins to make his way towards the German goal, when Jens Lehmann, keen to get the ball back, rushes out and launches into a dangerous two - footed tackle. The Turkish fan rolls around in agony and ends up being stretchered off due to the extent of the injury he sustains.
Is Lehmann sent off and/or reported? And if so, would his suspension be longer for assaulting a pitch invader than it would have been if he had committed an identical foul on a Turkish player?
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Number 14.....KH won't have given the life ban it would have been the County FA that gave the ban.
KH would have only submitted his report to the County FA who would have taken the action they felt necessary.
As for Cantona I can only suggest that the FA felt that the ban they gave him was sufficient aswell as the decision of the court in the court case that resulted from his attack
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Could we please please please stop these ridiculous violence scenarios. The comment about the man eating lion made me laugh and symbolises how ridiculous this feature has become.
If someone is violent they will get red carded and banned. There are so many better suggestions on these boards than someone going mental for no reason and punching an official.
Are we just living out our sick fantasies?
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I have a legitimate 'You are the Ref' scenario.
A Turkish player goes down injured and Schweinsteiger decides to kick the ball out of play so the injured Turk (of which there have been many!) can be treated.
After the treatment, a Turkish player throws the ball to Tuncay, who decides to play a long ball to Lehman.
Jens, thinking about where to play the ball after he collects it, inadvertently allows it to bounce, and it goes directly over his head and into the goal...
Turkey were just returning the ball, but due to the luck, go and celebrate their 'freak' goal.
However, the German players are furious and are requesting the referee to intervene...
Can he?
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spain are playing italy and it is 1-1 with 2 minutes to go. casillas recieves a backpass and is chased down by toni. casillas miss kicks to toni and slips over. toni sidefoots the ball towards the goal and it is rolling steadily towards the goalline, clearly in the centre of the goal and going in. suddenly, a fan runs onto the pitch evading the stewards and clears the ball for a throw in. what does the ref do?
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I have a suggestion-
Italy are playing Germany in the final. An incident takes place that leaves Gattuso on the floor writhing in pain after falling awkwardly. The German players had no involment in the incident, yet as an act of sportsmanship Ballack kicks the ball out of play so Gattuso can recieve attention. The referee did not prompt the Germans to stop play.
After Gattuso is attended to, Pirlo decides to return the ball the Germans. In doing so he floats the ball towards Lehman who slips at the last moment and watches the ball travel into the back of the net.
The Italians did not intend to score, and immediatley try to rectify the situation by asking the referee to ignore the goal, understanding that the goal was unfair and unsportsmanly. The Germans are understandbly enraged, they prrotest, arguing that they didnt have to stop play as the referee did not ask them to do so.
Should the goal stand??? (i posted this earlier but stupidly put Italian players under a Spanish nationality...my bad)
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Re: 101
I suppose you are not of University age, because if you are, you can clearly be done for plagiarism!
Read #99 and realise that I have already asked this situation...
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re: 102
not at uni, but still smart enough to realise that i've mentioned i posted the smae situation earlier...#83, i had to make changes after a silly mistake...so tables have turned fool, u copied me!
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re: 103 (and the last time I'll mention this)
Nope,
Just didn't read that far back...
Whereas my post was literally a couple before yours (and, I think, better worded also).
Please don't call me a fool, and I did not copy anyone, instead I am able to form my scenario in one post, not two...
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Germany v Turkey in the semi final. Schweinsteiger delivers a cross in the Turkish box, but Rustu catches the ball easily. All the players run towards the centre of the pitch, except for Klose, who stays behind Rustu, without the keeper noticing. Rustu drops the ball and prepares to kick it, when Klose suddenly comes from behind, takes the ball, dribbles the stunned Rustu and scores. Can this goal be disallowed for unsporting behaviour?
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re: 104
what would help is if you were able to understand that i was rectifying a mistake in my intial post. I am not as you seem to be uncapable of articulating my thoughts. As for your biased opinnion on the wording of your post, i think it would be better to leave the rest of the public to judge...and just so u realise, attending university has little signifcance on a persons abilty to understand the word plagiarism, nor does the age of a person. Next time...stay open minded, believe it or not there are people smarter than you...
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Stop your arguing :) Goal would still stand as long as the pass to Lehman wasn't a throw, if it was then it would be a goal kick as in both your situations he didn't touch it.
Re 105, that too would be a goal, seen Dion Dublin score a similar effort against Shay Given
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What happens if there is a penalty shoot out and the goalkeeper of one team injures himself whilst, say, diving into the post. Are the team allowed to bring on a substitute goalkeeper or must they use one of their outfield players in goal?
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Re 99 101 etc. If this happens ( a goal inadvertantly scored from an attempt to return the ball to the opposition) then a goal has to be awarded. The best way to rectify the situation is for the team that scored allow their opponents to equalise immediately.
IF it was the last kick of the game then that is just tough luck!
Re 94 It's already been covered. Unsportsmanlike behaviour. Yellow cards.
69, 73 and 93.
Once again, the play stops as soon as the outside influence (fan OR water bottle!) has an effect on the game.
Re 81. As with the above, you can't award a goal because it MAY have happened. So play would stop at the moment the goal collapsed.
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Kind of similar to 105.....
It's late on and goaless in the European semi-final between Russia and Spain. After a chaotic goalmouth scramble in the Russian area, substitute Fabregas aims a through ball behind the defence to the onrushing Villa. Goalkeeper Akinfeev intercepts the through ball and picks it up.
During this period, Fernando Torres was stood behind the Russian goalkeeper in a clearly offside position after sliding across the line in the pre-mentioned scramble.
Akinfeev immediately drops the ball to deliver it downfield from the deck, but Torres, sensing his opportunity tackles the unsuspecting keeper and slides the ball home.
Is it a goal or offside, considering that Torres has gained an advantage from being in an offside position, albeit it only because he is hidden behind the goalkeeper?
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To clarify better....
Is it a goal or offside, considering that Torres has gained an advantage from the intial through ball, albeit only belatedly because he is hidden behind the goalkeeper?
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"Many years ago I was refereeing a local junior cup semi-final and a player who had left the field assaulted a spectator, which I reported to the County FA. His playing days were ended when he was given a sine die ban."
Well done, Mr Hackett. So why was the same action not taken against Mr Cantona?
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A team is awarded a direct free kick outside their penalty area. The player taking the free kick kicks it backwards towards his own goalkeeper. The goalkeeper misses the ball - does not touch it - and the ball enters the net. What is the decision?
a. Goal
b Corner
c Retake the free kick
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Attacking striker tries to get on the end of a through ball which he is stopped from getting to by the right back who is shielding and shepherding it across the dead ball line, however the 'keeper rushes over and dives on the ball in the eighteen yard box before it goes dead. Has an offence occured and if so what should the ref award?
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105 is no goal as the goalkeepers is still deemed to be in possession of the ball if he is in the process of kicking the ball from his hands.
Thierry Henry once did that at Arsenal and the freekick was given.
101. Going by the letter of the law the goal should stand because the ball was in open play when the goal was scored. It's only an unwritten law that the balll gets returned to the opposition so the ref can't intervene.
113. It's a corner as an own-goal can't be scored from a free-kick. This point has been covered in a previous you are the ref
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114. No offence has occured providing the ball is within playing distance of the right back as he is shepherding the ball out of play.
Also as he has not deliberately kicked the ball to his goalkeeper then it isn't a pass back this play will carry on as normal
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116: What about the advantage that has accrued to the defending team due to the obstruction of the attacking striker?
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#84. The moment the ball stops its forward momentum, then the ball is dead. Hence when the keeper catches it, it's forward momentum has stopped, therefore, no goal should stand.
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No10 Dad and Lad Both Red - also remember that a conceded game is usually "lost" 3-0
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#58 (yes, I know it was a while ago)
You're quite right, now I come to think about it. The rule used to be that the 'keeper could bounce the ball six times (I'm not making this up, promise!) but it was removed in favour of a 15 second limit in, I think, 1997 or thereabouts.
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My suggestion:
I vaguely remember an incident in the spanish league where a referee gave a direct free kick just outside the opposition's box. A player from the attacking team placed the ball on the spot where the free-kick was given and shot the ball into the net while the opposition where still building their wall. The goal was allowed. The explanation was that the attacking player didn't need to wait because he didn't ask the referee to mark out the 10 yard wall. Is this correct?
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Yeah thats right. I love quick kicks. =)
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Man its been a couple of days. Look at all these new posts. I think I'll start at #50 and work up from there.
Two things:
First, I'm going by FIFA rules, if there are technically differences between those and leagues, I don't know about 'em.
Second, with all these interference scenarios the result is ALWAYS THE SAME.
DROP BALL WHERE THE BALL WAS WHEN THE INTERFERENCE TOOK PLACE (except if A) the ball is in the 6-yard box, then the DB is taken from the edge of that box, or B) Its during a PK shootout, then retake the kick.)
52:
No penalty, play on.
The player didn't play the ball or anything.
While technically I suppose you COULD do that, you wouldn't. It'd be stupid.
Hooray for referee's discretion.
53:
1) I don't think so. Hopefully the two guys will wake up in a couple of minutes and be able to come back on.
2) Whether or not I'd give that a penalty depends on the specifics of the situation, but my default answer would be 'yes'. All soccer players should learn back in grade school to "play the whistle".
54:
1. Sure is a goal. No he doesn't, but he could go put the ball in the back of his own net if he'd like.
2. No. In fact you can't even sub a guy if he doesn't want to come off even if you had another substitution left.
3. By who? I suppose the ref could yellow him for unsporting behaviour...
56:
Sucks to be him. Shoot the ball before the guy hits you. Drop ball where the fan took it.
59:
Drop ball from where Torres had the ball. Sucks to be him.
61:
Send him off. The ball needs to be in play for a FOUL. You can still hand out a card for misconduct.
62:
I'd probably have it retaken. The referee has the power to suspend the match due to outside interference of any kind.
64:
I think this has been answered by KH already. No goal and a yellow for you.
65:
Damn fine question. I don't quite know how to respond to that one... I say blow the whistle.
67:
Another situation where referee discretion comes into play. If its clear that the man was trying to score, let him have his goal. If he deliberately struck the opponent with the ball, red card and a free kick to the defending side.
68:
Sure.
69:
Never a goal if the ball doesn't cross the line. Retake it. And if the ball was rolling that slowly that a fan has time to wrestle past the guards, jump the barricade, and dash 100 ft to the ball, surely the GK could move back over the 5 yards and get it himself.
70:
Since the kick was never taken Van was never offside. He has to influence the play somehow before he commits the offense. So the answer is neither. Either a good talking to or a card for the defender (depending on the severity of what he actually did) and proceed with the kick.
71:
Probably no red, depending on the situation. Referee's discretion again, but I don't think you'll ever see that one awarded.
72:
As long as Chiellini is within a stride of the ball it is NOT obstruction. If the ball is further away than that, free kick to the Germans.
73:
Drop ball where the ball was when the fan grabs Materazzi.
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PART OF HIS CV ---- IAM A MANCHESTER UNITED SUPPORTER!!!!!!! Mr HACKETT WAS CONSEQUENTLY DELIGHTED!!!!!HE'L NO DOUBT BEAR IT MIND WHEN HE ALLOCATES THIS YOUNG MAN A PREMIERSHIP GAME ----Hmmmmmmmm
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Well_RED - an absolutely great point --YES WHY WASN'T CANTONA GIVEN A SINE DIE? Oh I see he was A manchester United when he acted like a thug and YES their players have a seperate set of FA rules -OR SO IT SEEMS......on and off the pitch!!!!! WHY??????
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Ten years ago or more Chelsea v Man United, referee David Ellery - - a Utd defender running towards the corner clears his lines under pressure from the Utd Keeper (Tablisi),the ball hits the corner flag and rebounds out to Chelsea forward Franco Zoloa he hits the ball into the empty net which seemingly put Chelsea the home side in front -WHAT NEXT?Hmmmmm Mr Ellery disallowed the goal hmmmm I ASK WHY Mr Hackett?????
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It is the final of Euro 2008: Spain v Germany
Germany are substituting Podolski for Gomez. Podolski has left the pitch but the assistant ref think Gomez might have a stud loose so is keeping him back. While both players are off the pitch an alien ship lands and abducts Gomez. As this was Germany's 3rd subsitution and they have been reduced to 10 men: what should happen, considering Podolski has already left the field of play?
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by the way the ship was martian
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OK, here are 2 perfectly good goals... or are they???
A: Euro final - Germany vs Spain. It is 0-0 with the game in injury time. Jens Lehmann has the ball in his hands. He shoves the ball up his jersey, and runs up the pitch with it there. Finally, he runs into the Spain goal to score a dramatic last-gasp winner! What does the referee do??
B: Even more of a goal, this one. A player with a distinctly odd haircut is brought on. He has a mass of curly hair, with a ball shape cut out of the top of it. He runs back into his own area, where the keeper puts the ball in his hair, where it is firmly secured by his hair cut. He then runs up to the other end of the pitch, runs into the goal and scores. Surely a perfectly good goal??
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